http://elynis.livejournal.com/ ([identity profile] elynis.livejournal.com) wrote in [community profile] code_geass2009-02-09 04:08 pm
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India?

So...I have a weird question. In the alternate history of Code Geass, did India ever get colonized? What is the political standing of India in the show anyway? They're part of the Chinese Federation, but they want out...? Also, is Rakshata the only Indian character we see on the show?

Thanks for being patient with me. It's when I ask questions like this that I realize how much I still don't understand the inner workings of Code Geass...

[identity profile] rainbow-cnxn.livejournal.com 2009-02-09 11:07 pm (UTC)(link)
The age of colonialism still happened, I think, as the American colonies still existed.

However, given that the Britannians got kicked out of England, I wouldn't be surprised if late 18th century Britannia was considerably weaker than late 18th century England, and that weakness would be evident in its overseas territorial holdings, as well. So my best guess is that Britannia had India but lost it in the course of events to China due to its internal weakness.

As it stands, India is part of China but wants out. And Raksharta also brought her posse of Indian engineers with her in S1.

As a general history note, remember that the Tudors still existed, so I'm guessing that Britannian history between the Norman invasion and Henry VIII was still largely the same. However, it's safe to say that the English Civil War never happened, and the existence of the Stuart and Hanoverian/Windsor monarchs are doubtful.

[identity profile] redwolftamer.livejournal.com 2009-02-10 12:24 am (UTC)(link)
Isn't it great that with all the alternate histories at work here, the Tudors still managed to rule because they're that badass!

Sorry, Tudor history freak here